zamakhtar
zamakhtar t1_j48ffiu wrote
Reply to comment by berent1825 in What was the State of Arabic Language Literature in the Ottoman Empire? by McGillis_is_a_Char
Couldn't believe how much Arabic is in Ottoman Turkish. It blew my mind when I checked out some manuscripts online. Before nationalism, Arabic, Farsi, and Turkish were syncretizing.
zamakhtar t1_j3y7epp wrote
Reply to Why did the Safavids pursue brutal methods to forcibly convert Iran to Shia Islam? by ChickFleih
Sunnis in Iran were seen as a fifth column who might ally with the Ottomans should they invade Iran. The Ottomans were also putting down Shia rebellions in their own territory, and increasingly emphasizing their position as a specifically Sunni Muslim state. But because Iran was majority Sunni, brutal methods were used to quickly convert the population to Shia Islam to secure it against the Ottoman threat.
zamakhtar t1_j4itjph wrote
Reply to I think that the term Byzantines is rightly used for adressing the Eastern Roman Empire. by VipsaniusAgrippa25
The problem is, you defined "Roman" first using preconceived ideas and began assessing the Eastern Romans based on these ideas.
A Roman in the 1st century was primarily someone who spoke Latin, practiced Greco-Roman Paganism, and lived in Italy. A Roman in the 10th century was primarily someone who spoke Greek, practiced Orthodox Christianity, and lived in Asia Minor.
Both are unquestionably Romans. Both were recognized by their neighbors as Romans. In fact, up until the modern Greek nation state, most Greeks still identified as Roman, not Greek.
Ask an Arab, Turk, Armenian, or Persian what a Roman is, and they will describe the 10th century Roman. Ask a Western European or American, and they will describe the 1st century Roman. In truth, both are Romans, just from different time periods and geographies.