slouchingtoepiphany
slouchingtoepiphany t1_itj9onj wrote
Reply to comment by parrotlunaire in Why don't drugs provoke an immune response? by parrotlunaire
The occurrence of immune mediated evemts is low because companies don't want to develop drug treatments if there's a stong likliehood that it will trigger an immune reaction in patients.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_itj6ump wrote
Many, if not most, drugs may elicit an immune response (hypersensitivity reaction), if you look at the adverse reactions sections of the package inserts for most drugs, you'll see a listing of the events that have been reported in clinical trials and the incidences at which they occurred.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_ise8sfe wrote
Reply to comment by Ganymede25 in Does a reverse placebo exist? by Nearby-Cloud-3476
I did misunderstand your previous comment. It's conceivable that people who guess correctly had experienced delay hypersensitivity reactions at the injection site (with vaccine, but not with placebo), but it's also possible that the group of correct guessers was small, say 3-6, and with a smaller number it's easier to obtain a series of correct guesses by chance alone. It's like flipping a coin and having it come up heads 3-4 (or more) times in a row. Statistics can do that. However, I think it's more likely to be the delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_isd8rzm wrote
Reply to comment by Ganymede25 in Does a reverse placebo exist? by Nearby-Cloud-3476
I don't see how participants could have guessed correctly, unless everybody thought that they received the actual vaccine. In that case, the people who received active treatment were 100% correct and the people who received placebo were 100% wrong. Hmmm.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_isd34co wrote
Reply to comment by Ah_Go_On in Does a reverse placebo exist? by Nearby-Cloud-3476
You're absolutely correct, I work in clinical research and studies are often double-blinded, so we don't know who receives active treatment and who receives placebo. If any adverse events (AEs) occur, we record the information and later, when the study is unblinded and the data are analyzed, that's when we know if the study drug causes any AEs more than placebo.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_ire77hx wrote
Reply to When a human dies (from natural causes), are there certain parts of the body that remain "alive" longer than the rest of the body? How long does it usually take for those parts to "die" and for the entire body to be considered fully dead? by flash17k
Individual cells die when they lose their ability to carry out aerobic metabolism because ATP is needed to maintain membrane integrity. Accordingly, the brain is one of the first things to die, some of the tissues that take longer include hair and fingernails, which can live for several days active the heart has stopped and the brain is dead.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_ire5rza wrote
Steroid molecules are derived from a common precursor, cholesterol, the base molecule in the illustration. They share similar chemical properties, notably their lipophilicity, which enables them to pass through cellular membranes without the need for a carrier molecule. Indeed, cholesterol is a normal constituent of cellular membranes. The conversion of cholesterol into the various steroids (e.g., cell-specific enzymes add molecules to the numbered sites on your example). The subsequent MOA of these steroids is similar. They circulate in the blood, pass through the membranes of target cells, bind (dimerize) to intracellular receptors, bind to DNA regulatory elements, and up- or down-regulate gene expression to yield proteins that influence the organism's physiology.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_ir9z4l9 wrote
Reply to comment by Tropenpinguin in Why humans die from Cancer if it’s only a Defect cell? by Meert_19
This is correct. In addition, cancer cells metastasize and grow tumors in multiple places where they also grow uncontrollably.
slouchingtoepiphany t1_itlqm4k wrote
Reply to What are the earliest known occurrences of depression? How was it recorded? by lgrey4252
It was reported among the ancient Greeks, as was a treatment they sometimes used, throwing the patient off a short cliff into the sea. (I read about this many years ago when I wrote an educational monograph on depression for Bristol-Myers Squibb when they were launching the antidepressant nefazodone.) Presumably it existed before this, but I don't know when it was first recognized as a disease. FYI, Hippocrates (ca. 400 BC) thought that all illnesses resulted from an imbalance in the four humors: blood, yellow bile, black bile, and phlegm. If you substitute these with the neurotransmitters serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine, he may not have been that far off from what we know now (which isn't much).