My primary issue with all of this is that Eastern Rome was the direct political continuity of the empire, it wasn't a successor state, it wasn't the "empire of the Greeks", it was the direct line from Rome and onwards. Using a term that didn't even exist during the time of the empire just seems wrong, and frankly a little disrespectful.
Mexsane t1_j4mi460 wrote
Reply to I think that the term Byzantines is rightly used for adressing the Eastern Roman Empire. by VipsaniusAgrippa25
My primary issue with all of this is that Eastern Rome was the direct political continuity of the empire, it wasn't a successor state, it wasn't the "empire of the Greeks", it was the direct line from Rome and onwards. Using a term that didn't even exist during the time of the empire just seems wrong, and frankly a little disrespectful.