Submitted by AkaashMaharaj t3_10ly0p9 in worldnews
Lirvan t1_j5zq0fe wrote
Why use such expansive language as "New World Order" when the main aspect wanting to be addressed would be met by an indo-pacific trade deal combined with looping Japan into the Five Eyes agreement and/or a trilateral defensive pact with Australia/USA?
Would a trade deal and a defensive agreement constitute a "New World Order?"
Further, the "New World Order" term has history in the USA, with George Bush Sr. attempting to use that terminology, and costing him his re-election.
dieyoufool3 t1_j5ztubi wrote
Just asked!
Lirvan t1_j5zus6j wrote
Thank you!
Sounds like wanting to use the expansive language due to desiring a larger change rather than a smaller one. At least, that's what I got out of the answer. Something close to the UN security committee, but limited to democratic nations.
Or perhaps Bretton Woods 2.0.
VanVelding t1_j5zscjv wrote
Because there's an order to the world. Changing it requires a new world order. This is a common turn of phrase and no one should stop using it just for the sake of redneck moron talking points from 30 years ago.
Lirvan t1_j5ztib2 wrote
There is MUCH more history to the term than just Bush Sr.
Further, there's even a widely popular conspiracy theory that uses the term.
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Just request an expansion of NATO into the indo-pacific and/or a trade alliance of democratic nations.
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