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jbman42 t1_j1zz2nx wrote

I have. I know for a fact that it is a gross manipulation of the facts. The research authors just blindly gathers all women and all men and see that there is a difference in income, while completely ignoring underlying factors like job areas, occupational risks, hours worked, willingness to move, willingness to humor unreasonable requests, life priorities, etc. And this is true even in Scandinavian countries, where they supposedly have more equality. But this is already digressing from the original topic of the post. I suggest you take your own advice and do a little search around the topic.

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dZeppETH t1_j1zzlz5 wrote

Again, your explanation is a gross oversimplification of a systemic issue that has been an evolving problem for the better part of a century. Do you think secretaries in the ‘60s were adequately compensated for their labor when compared to equivalent male roles at the time, and if so I would love a single example.

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