FomalhautCalliclea OP t1_jaeolb6 wrote
Reply to comment by Quealdlor in The XIXth and the XXIIth century: about the ambient pessimism predicting a future of inequality and aristocratic power for the elites arising from the singularity by FomalhautCalliclea
It depends when and where:
On the one hand, some ancient societies were quite egalitarian compared to the XIXth century (Harappa civilization, Tlaxcallan pre-colombian civilization, Sassanid empire under Khosrow I, etc).
On the other hand, some were much less egalitarian, in a dystopic manner almost (medieval serfdom societies).
The XIXth century was a progress on the precedent century, with many countries abolishing serfdom (1789 for the earliers like France, 1861 for the laters like Russia) and slavery (1807-1831 in the UK, 1848 in France, 1865 in the US).
There is also a continuity between centuries. There is even a saying: "the XVIIIth century asked the questions (with enlightenment), the XIXth century brought the answers".
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