Submitted by doubtstack t3_10jdsyc in philosophy
dukeimre t1_j5lcsoz wrote
Reply to comment by Aym42 in Argument for a more narrow understanding of the Paradox of Tolerance by doubtstack
Agreed that if OP were advocating for state violence against conservatives, he'd be acting out intolerance. That said, I think OP's personal intolerance would not invoke the paradox at all.
OP chooses not to associate with people OP sees as bad; further, OP tells others about how bad those people are on social media. None of these behaviors qualify as intolerance in the sense meant by these philosophers. (Unless OP is advocating for these others to be imprisoned simply for sharing their views, for example, which I don't think they are.)
From Rawls' perspective, unless the constitution of the state (written to preserve tolerance) is threatened, there's no need for the state to be "intolerant of the intolerant".
So, e.g., Trump's campaign of lies about election fraud and statements about how the constitution should be overthrown might put him on the wrong side of Rawls. By contrast, Ron DeSantis saying that African American history classes are racist is ludicrous but not "intolerant" in the sense of Rawls.
Aym42 t1_j5migc9 wrote
>It should be rendered painful to continue along with such a mindset
I believe there is at least some grey in the area here, if one believes conversion therapy for instance is intolerance. But yeah, we're in agreement, I should have been more clear that we're in agreement that bigotry does not equal or equate to intolerance in the "Paradox of Tolerance."
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