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vegoku92 t1_j3vuy3e wrote

I disagree. A lot of philosophy goes beyond culture, like logic and platos forms.

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luis-mercado t1_j3vzlj5 wrote

This is patently untrue and a gross misunderstanding of what culture is, as context.

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weedysexdragon t1_j3w1pau wrote

Nonononono. Stripping away all cultural and emotional context from a thing is the patented way of getting to the truth of it.

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ShalmaneserIII t1_j3wevir wrote

Some of the Platonic forms only make sense when you consider that their language didn't really consider adjectives to be a thing.

"Hot" or "Large" or "Red" were considered something loke incomplete nouns that required other nouns to finish them. "Hot sand", "Large tree", etc.

Only then does it make sense to talk of forms of "The hot" or "The large"or, "The good"

If their language treated adjectives as we do, they may not have started to consider "The Good" a thing.

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black641 t1_j3xka4o wrote

Not really. Furthermore, how do you figure logic and Platos’s forms AREN’T informed by culture? Everything we do is informed by the culture we grew up in, to some extent or another. Plato developed his philosophy as a consequence to the time, place, and society he grew up in. Also, logic isn’t a single road that leads to the same place for every circumstance. The values, norms, taboos, etc. of a society can and will dictate many outcomes to a single question, and those answers can be perfectly “logical” in those contexts.

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EducatorBig6648 t1_j4387uy wrote

>The values, norms, taboos, etc. of a society can and will dictate many outcomes to a single question, and those answers can be perfectly “logical” in those contexts.

Even if "value" is itself illogical?

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