Submitted by BernardJOrtcutt t3_xuk9z9 in philosophy
Material-Pilot-3656 t1_ir5avaz wrote
Reply to comment by ntschaef in /r/philosophy Open Discussion Thread | October 03, 2022 by BernardJOrtcutt
Would you consider order that considers everyone a moral good, or is order inherently exclusive to certain groups of people. If you found an order, and it is not harming others, would you find that moral?
ntschaef t1_ir5l0sn wrote
Practically? Yes. I think we have to think this way. It's what all people are under the practical delusion that they can achieve. We are limited and all organisms are an ordered collection of impulses. I don't think we could fully embrace chaos if we even wanted to.
Theoretically? No. All ordered systems will be built out of perception bias of the creators. They are built to ensure that some things that hurt the group they are appealing to are condemnable. But this is a reaction to those things existing to begin with.
For example, to say "murder is bad" helps the vast amount of people in society, but this is only a declaration because there are instances in which murder happens (which means the actor felt justified). This claim of "order" will hurt the murderers. Is this a good thing? Society says yes... for good reason, it generally helps them. But it doesn't help everyone. This is an extreme example that I'm using to make your case, but even in this extreme example I think you can see that the harm still exists. For lesser cases it would just happen more so.
I hope this follows.
Material-Pilot-3656 t1_ir5mgo4 wrote
Sure. That makes sense.
ntschaef t1_ir5ozt8 wrote
Thanks for the question :)
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