Submitted by Pretend_Freedom_8308 t3_10q8zqf in personalfinance
I have heard on the news recently that people are stealing checks out of mailboxes and either cashing them, or altering and then cashing them. Ignoring the actual act of theft because this is r/personalfinance, how is this possible?
If somebody steals a check and cashes it, why doesn't the bank (or whoever accepted the check) have to return the money? They are the negligent ones for not properly verifying that the check was written to the person cashing it. What am I missing here? Isn't being able to mail money and have only a specific person able to retrieve it literally the entire point of a check? Otherwise we might as well just mail cash to each other.
Rave-Unicorn-Votive t1_j6oke9v wrote
>They are the negligent ones for not properly verifying that the check was written to the person cashing it.
After washing, the check is written to the person cashing it.