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Ruminant t1_j2csmaj wrote

Reply to comment by HenryKringle6000 in Personal Loan Against 401k to Contribute More? by [deleted]

How are you putting them in as "post-tax" dollars if you are literally using the same pretax dollars that were dispersed as the original loan principal? When are they ever taxed, other than when withdrawn in retirement?

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HenryKringle6000 t1_j2ct2dm wrote

Let’s say you put $10k pre-tax dollars into your 401k.

Then you take a $10k loan out. The loan repayments come out of the post-tax part of your paycheck. Aka, now you are putting taxed dollars back into the 401k to replace the pre-tax dollars you took out.

When your loan is over you put in $10k to repay the loan… but it was no longer tax free. The repayments weren’t pre-tax dollars. You paid taxes on those dollars.

Now, when you retire and pull the 401k money out you will pay tax on that $10k again. That’s double taxation.

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[deleted] OP t1_j2ct9w2 wrote

[deleted]

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HenryKringle6000 t1_j2ctny8 wrote

I guess I don’t understand why you would want to do that. The only benefit of these ROTH/401k plans is to save on taxes. And the government puts strict limits on them.

Why not just put any excess money you want to invest in normal stock account?

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Ruminant t1_j2cucsc wrote

Imagine that you never spend the $10k disbursed by the loan. Then for every dollar of principal that you repay via payroll deduction, you transfer a dollar from the original loan amount into the bank account where your paychecks are deposited.

How would that above scenario look different from one where you could instead make loan repayments from the original principal rather than payroll deduction? It wouldn't. Your bank account would have the same ending balance, and you'd see the same amount of taxes being withheld (and ultimately taxed) from each paycheck.

How can you be double-taxed if the money used to repay the principal is never once taxed until you withdraw it in retirement?

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