Submitted by pyrocat t3_z7jrde in personalfinance
I was talking to a family friend about how they're thinking of selling their very nice house and they claimed they wouldn't pay any tax. I was skeptical, but they broke it down for me, and it seems to check out. Let me know if I missed anything. I rounded some numbers for convenient math.
900k (hypothetical) home sale
-200k initial cost basis
-100k mortgage
-50k closing costs
= 550k profit
single, primary residence means 250k of that is tax-free
That leaves 300k remaining that should be hitting long term capital gains. However this guy is on social security and makes way under the 44k tax bracket that would equal 0% LTCG. So he would owe 0% tax on the remaining 300k, for a total profit of 550k tax-free.
Am I missing something? The home sale wouldn't increase his income bracket for that year, would it?
night28 t1_iy6xvpg wrote
The 300k counts as income for tax purposes. It's just subject to capital gains tax instead of income tax.
Edit: /u/Mysunsai's answer is more complete than mine. tldr answer is no though.