Submitted by pyrocat t3_z7jrde in personalfinance
I was talking to a family friend about how they're thinking of selling their very nice house and they claimed they wouldn't pay any tax. I was skeptical, but they broke it down for me, and it seems to check out. Let me know if I missed anything. I rounded some numbers for convenient math.
900k (hypothetical) home sale
-200k initial cost basis
-100k mortgage
-50k closing costs
= 550k profit
single, primary residence means 250k of that is tax-free
That leaves 300k remaining that should be hitting long term capital gains. However this guy is on social security and makes way under the 44k tax bracket that would equal 0% LTCG. So he would owe 0% tax on the remaining 300k, for a total profit of 550k tax-free.
Am I missing something? The home sale wouldn't increase his income bracket for that year, would it?
Mysunsai t1_iy6y4c1 wrote
A mortgage is not part of your cost basis.
And the capital gains brackets are progressive brackets just like the regular income brackets. The capital gains brackets sit on top of the other income brackets.
If he has $10k in other taxable income for example, then the first $34k of capital gains (up to the $44k bracket) would be taxed at 0%. The rest would be in the 15% bracket.