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Vanathor t1_iy6jmcz wrote

Reply to comment by theoriginalharbinger in Debt collection - how long after judgment before bank is garnished? by dudeindebt1990

Per his post, he lives in a state where his wages are not directly subject to garnishment or collections. His employer wouldn't be subject to that as a party as a result. So long as it never touches a US account as a receiving party in the first place outside of his employer he is in the clear. Other consequences would exist - his credit score would take a hit, etc. Not giving up significant amounts of money often can be the better option.

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theoriginalharbinger t1_iy6k8ub wrote

You keep talking about things you don't know about.

If he has currency, it has to be entered into a US bank before it goes overseas. If he resides in a state with a creditors right to levy his account, it can be levied. If he lies about its existence, he can be held for contempt.

There's a reason wealthy people on the verge of bankruptcy don't just move to Texas and move their money overseas. It's because the motion you've described fundamentally puts on society's fringes, makes dealing with everything inconvenient, and can be construed as contempt of court or criminal behavior.

You literally do not know what you're talking about. Non US accounts require a non US nexus anyway. And considering you went bankrupt recently, I have my doubts that you've opened an overseas account or have any knowledge of the reporting requirements or overseas assets vis a vis debt collection.

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Vanathor t1_iy6kvfz wrote

The power of the government in a bankruptcy situation is pretty different from a private debt collector trying to execute a judgment. People run from their creditors all the time. You act like this is a novel situation. It's not.

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theoriginalharbinger t1_iy6lxyx wrote

Dude, just let it go. Advising people to open up bank accounts overseas when it's obvious you have no experience in the matter is a dumb move, and you have no reason to compound that error here.

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