Submitted by scccc- t3_127xvog in personalfinance
Not sure if I understand this screenshot correctly. My Roth 401k is only invested in FXAIX and all my contributions have been after-tax money. I'm pretty sure "Pre-Tax Assets ($239.54)" is referring to my total gains from the mutual fund. If I do this rollover & select "Keep the same mutual funds, where possible", is it going to just move FXAIX into my ROTH IRA or sell my stuff? Additionally, do I now immediately owe taxes on the pre-tax assets that I'm rolling over or is it just telling me that I have this much pre-tax assets and the tax-deferred status will maintain until I'm 59?
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I called the 401k and IRA department at Fidelity but I don't think they understood or I explained this badly.
Edit: They also told me that the pre-tax asset would be moved into a Traditional IRA and After-tax asset would be moved into Roth IRA. But I don't know if this is true. I don't have a Traditional IRA.
DeluxeXL t1_jegbg6b wrote
It is likely the Roth earnings, considering that the only valid destinations are Roth IRA or Roth IRA. Calling it pretax is just weird.
If it were pretax employer match, valid destinations would have included traditional IRA.