Submitted by ToothPicker2 t3_12707zn in personalfinance
nkyguy1988 t1_jec38q1 wrote
Reply to comment by ToothPicker2 in Pre-tax assets messing up my asset allocation percentages.. pls help! by ToothPicker2
That's true, but not when it comes to asset allocation. You get around it by doing the same split in each type.
ToothPicker2 OP t1_jed5m2q wrote
I’m not sure what you’re saying. Split and asset allocation mean the same thing right?
nkyguy1988 t1_jed6b61 wrote
Yes. If you use 2 funds, buy the same funds in identical proportions in each tax status.
ToothPicker2 OP t1_jed716t wrote
Yeah and that’s very difficult to do, because my funds are spread out all over in different quantities and proportions, so I can’t just consider the pre-tax assets and post-tax assets equal to reach my asset allocation, ratio right?
Ok let me explain in the most basic way:
Assume I have $100 to invest and I split it between VTI and BND in a 60:40 ratio ($60 in VTI and $40 in BND), so my asset allocation is 60:40.
Now, assume the VTI sits in a tax-advantaged account like a 401k or IRA, and the $40 of BND is in a taxable brokerage, so that $60 is actually pre-tax dollars, while the $40 is post-tax dollars.
If I assume my tax rate in retirement would be 10%, the $60 of VT is effectively $54 of assets I own.
So my actual asset allocation is $54:$40 or 57:43.
That’s what I’m trying to say.
Ok let me explain in the most basic way:
Assume I have $100 to invest and I split it between VTI and BND in a 60:40 ratio ($60 in VTI and $40 in BND), so my asset allocation is 60:40.
Now, assume the VTI sits in a tax-advantaged account like a 401k or IRA, and the $40 of BND is in a taxable brokerage, so that $60 is actually pre-tax dollars, while the $40 is post-tax dollars.
If I assume my tax rate in retirement would be 10%, the $60 of VT is effectively $54 of assets I own.
So my actual asset allocation is $54:$40 or 57:43.
That’s what I’m trying to say.
nkyguy1988 t1_jed8bmx wrote
You run 60/40 in taxable and 60/40 in IRA/401k. Problem solved
ToothPicker2 OP t1_jed8hp6 wrote
That would require a lot of buying and selling, for example - I’m 100% stocks in 401k.. which is why I’m wondering is it important?
nkyguy1988 t1_jed99ej wrote
It costs nothing and is tax blind in a 401k. Literally can change allocations in about 3 minutes.
It's not important because the differences are minimal in the grand scheme of things.
ToothPicker2 OP t1_jedak3n wrote
It’s tax blind in the 401k and IRA but would trigger taxable events in the brokerage right?
Besides, it would go against the ideology of putting maxing out bonds in tax advantage accounts right?
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