Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments

beipphine t1_j0xhepi wrote

You joke, but Intoxication is a defense that is available. The defendant can claim that his compromised mental state prevented him from forming the necessary mens rea. The lawyers could argue that he did not have the specific intent to commit the crimes he has been accused of because he lacked the state of mind necessary.

​

IANAL and this is not legal advice.

6

mtarascio t1_j0y1bmi wrote

Not sure why you're being downvoted. It is a legitimate defence.

Unfortunately the cocktail he ended up on was likely shopped around or just acquired illegally in the first place.

1

Aghast_Cornichon t1_j0zv5u5 wrote

Usually, unintentional intoxication. In my jdx we sentenced a guy to death for a multiple murder and arson that I am sure he really has no memory of because of the handle of vodka he drank first.

There may be a "Ritalin defense" attempt but it's exceptionally difficult to claim involuntary impairment over years of conspiratorial conduct.

1