Submitted by Umamilover77 t3_xx70yj in newhampshire

A contractor installed a carpet in my home in early 2021 after a water leak led to an insurance claim. They have a record of me paying the deposit and my recollection is that I paid the remainder at the time. I never heard from them after the installation and then they called me late this summer to say I still owed them $1800. Is there a statute of limitations on when you can collect a debt after not invoicing the customer for over a year?

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clarenceisacat t1_irak500 wrote

How would you have paid this? If you used a check, your bank should be able to produce proof of this.

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ccoyote1 t1_irbduy4 wrote

yeah, unless you spite paid them in pennies you should be able to provide proof that you paid them without too much effort.

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FlatEmployment3011 t1_irajlc4 wrote

You have no documentation that this was paid? Did you call the insurance company?

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RickyDaytonaJr t1_irad0eo wrote

Three years. RSA 508:4.

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KrissaKray t1_irb1tc6 wrote

Is that for collections of a debt or just, as the RSA says "libel, slander" etc?

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RickyDaytonaJr t1_irb3jhe wrote

The first clause of the law is an umbrella that covers a lot of things (essentially the enforcement of any personal obligation), including contracts and open accounts. The second clause of the law deals with libel and slander.

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DogCuddler1 t1_irdhv9f wrote

It wouldn’t be difficult to look at your bank account and credit cards to see if you paid them. I think you already know you didn’t pay them, but you don’t want to admit it as you don’t want to pay them now. Just figure that out before you decide to basically steal from them.

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