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BostonUniStudent t1_j7q2975 wrote

It's a little wonky. The men can be treated as innocent and the evidence be treated as associated with a criminal activity still. Civil asset forfeiture has a separate standard of proof and even a separate trial.

So weirdly, the money can be found guilty. Or more accurately "more probable than not that it was associated with criminal activity." Which I'm told can be represented by a greater than 50% chance. Whereas guilt in the criminal context is closer to 99% (some lawyers put a closer to 85%, it just depends on your definition of reasonable doubt).

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the_falconator t1_j7rawnf wrote

It's like OJ winning the criminal trial and still losing the civil case, different standards of proof.

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BostonUniStudent t1_j7rc0x9 wrote

It's kind of like that inasmuch as it's civil and not criminal. And it's been awhile since I've read up on that case. But I think he was found civilly liable for a wrongful death.

These civil asset forfeiture cases require no such finding of individual guilt or innocence (responsible or not responsible). This is trial against the evidence itself.

It might be like State of New York v. Yacht.

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