Submitted by VipsaniusAgrippa25 t3_10bp7ru in history
Throwawayeieudud t1_j4cudlv wrote
their culture diverged from the original roman culture, I agree with that but they are definetely the most direct descendent of the roman’s. plus their form of government was much closer to rome’s than fuedal europe.
mangalore-x_x t1_j4kivrq wrote
Our culture diverges from that 50 years before significantly.
VipsaniusAgrippa25 OP t1_j4cv5w9 wrote
Yes but by the time of Alexios I, governments were totally different.
Grossadmiral t1_j4fgv06 wrote
The Roman empire stood for over a thousand years. Of course the governments changed, nothing ever stays the same. People react and adapt to changing environment.
The Roman east was always Greek, even during the days of Caesar and Augustus the Eastern part of the empire spoke Greek.
[deleted] t1_j4ptrv5 wrote
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ImperialxWarlord t1_j4ug3c2 wrote
And the “proper” Rome of old changed government multiple times. The kingdom of Rome became the republic which backed the principate form of the empire followed by the dominate. If a change in government and culture means they’re not Roman then Rome stopped being Roman a hell of a long time before the eastern empire was formed.
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