Submitted by DaslolligeLol t3_1045lx5 in history
Grandjehan t1_j4lxj9f wrote
Reply to comment by kermit_thegreen_frog in Was the Weimar Republic really meant to go down? by DaslolligeLol
This argument almost argues that the United States is destined to fail as well. Executive orders are able to be made by the President, and while they can't single-handedly dissolve the legislature, depending on the nature and purview of SCOTUS, executive orders can basically be whatever they want them to be. The American constitution also seems just as difficult if not more difficult to amend than in the Weimar Republic (given our own fractured nature and pluralistic voting system). Would you argue that the U.S. has inherent problems, making its collapse inherent in the absence of major reforms? And if not, what would you say are the main differences between the likelihood of the 2 democratic systems' odds of failure?
Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments