Submitted by TurboTortois3 t3_zr3sct in history
The STG-44, created by Germany during the Second World War, was the first ever assault rifle in the world. We know that the Germans surrendered in 1945, and large stockpiles of weapons were presumably left behind, including STG-44s. Furthermore, US soldiers must have captured some STG-44s from killed German soldiers, and reverse engineering the assault rifle technology must have been possible due to the United States' massive industrial capability.
Today, we know that automatic rifles are a staple of modern militaries, and the Soviets knew that during the late 1940s with the AK-47. However, the US military still used the semi-automatic M1 Garand several years after the war, and then replaced it with the M14, which was capable of automatic fire but was unreliable and uncontrollable when used that way. Only until the Vietnam War (30 years after the end of WW2 and the developments of the STG-44 and AK-47) was the M16 introduced.
So, I'm kind of confused on why the US didn't adopt the STG-44 after WW2. Surely it must have been an improvement over previous weapons and the US would have been able to reverse engineer and mass produce the weapon.
Laughedindeathsface t1_j124q0h wrote
I'm just throwing this out there. We also realized pretty quick that semi-auto is better for accuracy minus a few automatic weapons per squad for suppression.
US military has always preferred semi-automatic for it main weapon systems. Promotes accuracy, ammo conservation, less time reloading because mag fed full auto is 2 secs, 3 tops.