Submitted by TurboTortois3 t3_zr3sct in history
The STG-44, created by Germany during the Second World War, was the first ever assault rifle in the world. We know that the Germans surrendered in 1945, and large stockpiles of weapons were presumably left behind, including STG-44s. Furthermore, US soldiers must have captured some STG-44s from killed German soldiers, and reverse engineering the assault rifle technology must have been possible due to the United States' massive industrial capability.
Today, we know that automatic rifles are a staple of modern militaries, and the Soviets knew that during the late 1940s with the AK-47. However, the US military still used the semi-automatic M1 Garand several years after the war, and then replaced it with the M14, which was capable of automatic fire but was unreliable and uncontrollable when used that way. Only until the Vietnam War (30 years after the end of WW2 and the developments of the STG-44 and AK-47) was the M16 introduced.
So, I'm kind of confused on why the US didn't adopt the STG-44 after WW2. Surely it must have been an improvement over previous weapons and the US would have been able to reverse engineer and mass produce the weapon.
RonPossible t1_j1283lt wrote
First, the US exited WW2 with a few million M1 Garand rifles. In the post-war drawdown, there was no urgency to replace that proven platform. Development of the replacement began in 1944, but really didn't go anywhere until the Korean War.
The UK proposed the .280 British round, in part based on the StG-44's 7.92 performance. The US rejected anything under .30 and found the .280's ballistics substandard compared to the .30-06. The 7.62mm was selected because it's ballistics matched the .30-06 due to newly developed powder. Also because the US Bureau of Ordnance wasn't keen on a non-American design.