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zorokash t1_j0sfjok wrote

Reply to comment by [deleted] in Ancient Grammatical Puzzle That Has Baffled Scientists for 2,500 Years Solved by Cambridge University Student by Superb_Boss289

They are dying BECAUSE noone is speaking them... going extinct if it makes more sense to you?

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[deleted] t1_j0si2aj wrote

If no one is speaking them, they're dead, not dying.

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zorokash t1_j0smzeh wrote

I literally explained how people are speaking it as a secondary language for various functions such as speech, poetry, prose, and theatre. People are speaking and writing it. There are schools teaching it in the hundreds. You are using the word "speaking" but not giving a satisfactory definition of it.

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[deleted] t1_j0sperd wrote

So not no one?

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zorokash t1_j0sq3g3 wrote

Yes, not Noone. There are speakers who speak it regularly, in the several thousands. Just not as mother tongue.

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[deleted] t1_j0t9l1e wrote

Okay. You kept on saying no one speaks the dying languages. So you can see that language isn't exactly precise and even though you think the definition of dead language isn't obvious, that doesn't mean it's wrong.

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