Submitted by ImperatorScientia t3_znu954 in history
Imperialism is often discussed as a specific time period––and often concurrently with colonialism––from about the 16th century to the 20th. It is even broken down into "Old" and "New" periods which cover the colonization of the New World by European powers and the colonial powers of the post-Industrial Revolution, respectively.
However, we define "imperial" in the context of government as any system fitting the characteristics of a classical empire: territorial expansion at the expense of subordinate countries and being under the rule of an autocrat (e.g. Emperor). This pretty much includes a majority of historical powers over the thousands of years ranging from the Akkadians to post-War Britain. Even Wikipedia fails to include a section on imperialism predating the Colonial period and limits the "Age of Imperialism" to a mere couple hundred years, once again concurrent with colonialism.
Why, then, is imperialism so often discussed alongside colonialism when it has been the dominant system of government for most of human history? Is this political or is there something about the government of more ancient empires that somehow doesn't fit the definition? Why is "imperialist" a term commonly reserved for the US and European powers of the past few hundred years when we have asiatic powers like Imperial China or the Ottoman Empire which existed for even longer stretches of time?
agrostis t1_j0kv0hw wrote
> and being under the rule of an autocrat (e.g. Emperor)
Is this condition really necessary? Rome's expansion began during the republican period, even before Sulla. The rise of the British Empire coincided with the reallocation of political power from the kings to the Parliament and the ministerial bureaucracy. France's colonial acquisitions continued under its 3rd republic (e. g., Madagascar became a French protectorate in 1882 and a colony in 1897).