Submitted by AutoModerator t3_zbfpun in history
en43rs t1_iz9lmty wrote
Reply to comment by GOLDIEM_J in Simple/Short/Silly History Questions Saturday! by AutoModerator
No. Why would it be? The Spanish Inquisition was formed out of paranoia that newly converted Jews (and later Muslims) were not truly Christians. And so they hunted hidden Jews in the kingdom.
GOLDIEM_J t1_iz9mwh4 wrote
My predicament is that during the first taifa period, Alfonso VI conquered Toledo and was quite close to unifying Spain under a tolerant and harmonious rule. But then came in the radical Almoravid and even more radical Almohad caliphates who practiced forced conversions and fed into the "us vs them" concept stereotypical of the reconquista. It could've been a unified, tolerant kingdom but instead turned out as the one religion "winning" over another one. How far do you agree with this?
en43rs t1_iz9nga2 wrote
That's outside of my area of expertise and it's speculative history, so I don't really have an opinion on Alfonso VI.
What I can say is that the Inquisition was linked to widespread antisemitism, on a European scale, its dealing with Muslims came later. So I think that the causes of the Inquisition are mainly independent of the Reconquista.
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