EchoesInTheAbyss t1_iuyxp17 wrote
Reply to comment by JumboJetz in Why, in the last two centuries, have women become to be considered less sexual than men, if, throughout history, they were believed to have a much higher libido? by [deleted]
The key is the word "majority", which is actually untrue.
Maybe the "majority" of the very few women you have interacted and are willing to discuss this with you. But not necessarily the 51% of the population at large.
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