Submitted by LuminousNutria t3_xxnw9e in history
I know that the Roman Empire at this point was already too expansive to govern itself with just one emperor. However, there is at least one example of Julius Caesar doing this in retaliation for an attack without subsequently occupying the territory he invaded. I believe the late Roman Empire successfully invaded and left Persia as well.
There are also other examples from other cultures of attacking the homeland and an aggressor, and retreating without bothering to occupy the territory. This generally satisfies the desire for revenge, and reduces the ability of those attacked to be a nuisance later on.
Why didn't the late Roman Empire host retaliatory excursions against the Germanic tribes, the Huns, and others who invaded their lands?
RPGLover16 t1_irdurao wrote
Because the Late Roman Empire had several economic, demographics and military problems. Plus the land of Germania was a wild and "poor" land for Roman standards, there wasn't anything to gain from conquering warmongering tribes on the other side of the Limes. Also the Romans thought of Germania as part of the empire actually, just unruled. At least de jure they considered the province of Germania their territory anyways