Submitted by AutoModerator t3_115esr4 in history

Welcome to our History Questions Thread!

This thread is for all those history related questions that are too simple, short or a bit too silly to warrant their own post.

So, do you have a question about history and have always been afraid to ask? Well, today is your lucky day. Ask away!

Of course all our regular rules and guidelines still apply and to be just that bit extra clear:

Questions need to be historical in nature. Silly does not mean that your question should be a joke. r/history also has an active discord server where you can discuss history with other enthusiasts and experts

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CourtofTalons t1_j91k0b6 wrote

Do you believe the world would be better or worse of the 1991 New Union Treaty was signed? What do you believe would happen if it was signed?

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najing_ftw t1_j91nsma wrote

Is there ANYTHING that could be considered an out of place artifact, lost knowledge, non-human creation or any non-traditionally accepted bits of history?

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doctorboredom t1_j91vrge wrote

In advertising posters around the turn of the 20th century there is a large amount of female nudity. For example ads for bicycles frequently feature nude images of women.

What was the contemporary reaction to this? Did people find these images shocking? Do we have any contemporary writings of people reacting to the use of nude women in advertising posters?

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jezreelite t1_j91wxb1 wrote

Plenty of knowledge has been lost; it's just not of the type that Ancient Aliens and the like imagine. Rather, it's of smaller things, like great works of literature or things that could have given us greater knowledge of the past.

For instance, the biggest reason why we know so little of the ancient Minoans is because their scripts, Cretan hieroglyphs and Linear A, are still undeciphered.

There are also numerous lost works of literature, like most of Sappho's poetry, the other six works of the Trojan Cycle, Cleitarchus' History of Alexander, Cato the Elder's Origines, Claudius' history of the Etruscans, the memoirs of Agrippina the Younger, the hypothesized Q document that served as a source for the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, and countless others.

None of these are likely to have contained instructions on how to build a nuclear fusion reactor or whatever, but it's still lost knowledge.

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shantipole t1_j91zh8s wrote

FYI, alternate history and anything less than 20 years ago aren't "history" (see Rules 3 and 5 of the subreddit). You're definitely not adhering to the former and most of the discussion of long-term consequences would violate the latter.

That being said, for the New Union Treaty to have had a chance and not just be another dying gasp of the USSR, it would have needed to at least appear to fix the perceived problems of the USSR: including (but not limited to!) too much central control and the inherent corruption in any centralized power structure. But, those in power liked those "problems" since they were the basis of their power. The fact that 6 of the 15 socialist republics weren't even invited to participate in drafting it, and that opposition to the treaty (among hardliners) focused on how it might let the Baltic states and Ukraine be too independent, says to me that the same forces that led to the anti-treaty coup would have torn the government apart from the inside, probably relatively quickly (like the USA almost did a few times in the early years, culminating in the US Civil War, or how bastard feudalism in England inevitably built competing power blocks culminating in the War of the Roses).

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Elmcroft1096 t1_j926123 wrote

Nudity has a strange and odd history as to how societies have viewed it over history. But as what you're asking about is most likely the Edwardian influence on that era in Europe. With the death of Queen Victoria, the prudish Victorian era had come to a close and the more flamboyant and and open Edwardian era began. King Edward VII was a bovivant and loved the excesses of life. This translated into a freer society in terms of nudity and sex. Also this was a time of "accepted" medical practices and the "settled science" of the day were being questioned which lead to a growing interest in naturism, basically nudism in the woods, countryside, beach resorts, anywhere away from cities of smog, pollution and disease. The women on bicycles are probably advertising for a naturist resort where clothes were barred, people bathed regularly, focus was on a healthy diet and daily exercise for the time the person spent there, the naturism movement spawned magazines (one of which H&E which stands for Health & Efficiency was started in 1900 & continues today to be in publication) posters and short movies. Naturism was about reconnecting with nature by being naked outside but also about better health and over all quality of life, naturists often didn't smoke or consume alcohol which was more than unusual at that time. The opposition to this came from the United States where it was seen as pornographic and sinful and these posters, magazines and films were largely banned, people caught in possession, mailing them or buying them could be arrested and jailed.

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jezreelite t1_j92kp9n wrote

The general attitude toward nudes in advertising in the 19th and early 20th century were not dissimilar to the attitude toward nudity in fine art.

Generally speaking, nude art that had some kind of historical or mythological background was fine, but nudes of contemporary women in contemporary settings were considered much more shocking and risqué. It's why Cabanel and Bouguereau's depictions of the Birth of Venus were both considered beautiful and respectable works of art, but Manet's Olympia caused a furor. Orientalist nudes, like of Odalisques in idealized harems, were also far more acceptable than those of contemporary European women.

Most nude ads I've seen from the 19th and early 20th century are tended to have ostensibly historical, mythological, or Orientalist subject matter, which is probably why they don't seem to have drawn much contemporary criticism.

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JoyousDiversion t1_j92m2df wrote

If Germany had not invaded Poland and stuck with what they had on August 31st 1939, would they have been able to beat America to the atomic bomb, and therefore been in a stronger position to win what would eventually have been WWII?

I don’t know how far along their atomic research was at that point, nor America for that matter, but I do know the invasion of Poland and subsequent actions created an urgency in the Americans weapons programme.

I know it’s a “what if” but I’m talking specifically about where both programmes were on August 31st 1939.

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TheGreatOneSea t1_j92ngxo wrote

Germany, by its own estimates, wouldn't have had a nuke before 1947 at best, which is why the program was shelved; and if Germany doesn't invade the USSR by the start of 1942, there isn't a World War 2 at all, as Germany would start to run out of oil for its military machine, and thus, be in no position to win an offensive war.

Whatever such a conflict would look like, it would be a different beast than WW2, and the Germans still aren't getting a nuke first if Japan still attacks the US.

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khegiobridge t1_j92v7kh wrote

are there any accurate Hollywood western movies?

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BringBackHanging t1_j9308bs wrote

It seems like the late Roman Republic was in a constant state of civil war for a long time up to Augustus becoming emperor. I find it surprising in that context the Republic didn't face more significant external opportunistic pressure or attacks, either from the Parthians, European tribes, or someone else. Why didn't they?

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elmonoenano t1_j9369c4 wrote

It's impossible to know, and I'm an institutionalist, so my bias comes from that POV, but I don't think it would have mattered. The problem with the USSR had more to do with corrupt and ineffective institutions, and that's carried through to the modern day. This treaty, and pretty much any other treaty like it, would just be putting different curtains on the windows. It wouldn't have done anything to fix a court system to make enforceable contracts, or to protect people from the government, or to make the incentives for public employees to not be corrupt, or to make businesses competitive in the world markets. Also, as countries like the Baltic states and Poland improved their economies, the failure would have been more apparent and created resentment. I think it would have just delayed Ukrainian independence for a little while, but that's probably it.

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elmonoenano t1_j93jcyh wrote

There's a researcher named Alex Wellerstein who studies nuclear weapons history. He's done some AMAs here and posts on /r/askhistorians occasionally. He keeps a blog called Restricted Data. If you search around on it, there's lots of cool stuff. This post gets a little into your question. https://blog.nuclearsecrecy.com/2015/11/13/when-did-the-allies-know-there-wasnt-a-german-bomb/

Also, there's a BBC podcast called The Bomb. I don't think it was great, but there's enough useful info on it to make it worth listening to. But a few of the episodes address your question.

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GSilky t1_j93jdo5 wrote

Greek fire was figured out, however we don't have any Byzantine recipes for it. We do have the versions used at the time by other armies, and it's probably the same thing. Without the Byzantine recipe we will never know for certain what precise ingredients were used.

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GSilky t1_j93jqcg wrote

Not really, when something is found that contradicts the record they weigh the evidence (it almost always turns out to be sloppy site work or just fraud) and withhold judgement on that artifact. One potsherd against thousands and all of that.

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Hungry_Nail9832 t1_j93jx2p wrote

I don't know about Accuracy per say but I do know that when westerns became a thing Wyatt Earp was a consultant for several silent era westerns. He became friends with a few western actors so im sure they at least got his perspective. Another thing I've always heard but im not sure about truth wise is that John Wayne met Earp when he was still a bit player in silent films and going by his birth name. He may have gleaned some knowledge from him as well

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GSilky t1_j93k6qf wrote

They did, the major agonists in the scenario all rose to the position to be possible emperor during these conflicts with Persia, gaul, etc. Caesar ended any possibility of revolt in gaul by pacifying them with arms, winning their loyalty citizenship. Crassus was killed in Persia, but IIRC, Pompey went and fixed their wagon.

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BanjoMothman t1_j93ybf0 wrote

How did Nikolai Ignatyev secure so much land for Russia after the Opium Wars, despite Russia denying the request from Britain to be allies and sending virtually no military support? Are there any good books on the Russian specific side of the conflict?

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Elmcroft1096 t1_j945arb wrote

I can't remember where I read it, but Hitler sought a 10 year long war, figuring that it would take 10 years of warfare to achieve all of his goals and have a nuke so figure with that idea he would want to or have to fight from 1939 until 1949 and just as the other poster pointed out I also read that the Nazi's own assessment was they wouldn't have a nuke until 1947 meaning that with Hitler thinking he needed 10 years, and his high command figuring that they wouldn't have a nuke until 1947, that even after getting the nuke they would still need some 18-24 more months of war for Hitler to achieve all his goals.

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Jaredlong t1_j94crgk wrote

Maybe this is way too broad, but how did hereditary monarchs actually hold on to power? It was always presented to me as "Well, he's the son of the previous king, and everyone just agrees that's how kings work, so everyone just goes along with it." But the older I get, the more skeptical I am that the social class just below the monarch would blindly subject themselves to the monarch's authority for the sake of upholding tradition. Yet, many hereditary monarchies managed to hold onto power for centuries. How? How did they keep the other nobles complacent? Money? Violence? Or did the other nobles see themselves as equals with the monarchical family and didn't care that some guy was calling himself a king?

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BaldBear_13 t1_j94deyi wrote

I have heard of a hypothesis that geography can determined development path.

The democratic tradition was present in Greece, Rome and Europe. All of these are peninsulas, with mountains or forests in the interior, and plenty of harbors along the coast.

On the other side, several major ancient civilizations were based along a river valley, and were fully autocratic: Egypt, Babylon, China.

Is there a connection? Could be it that river-based civilization made it easier to control movement of both goods and troops, leading to conquest by autocratic ruler?

Are there further examples of counterexamples? Did any actual historian think along those lines?

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TsarOfIrony t1_j94hti7 wrote

Everyone wants their kids to have a good life. If I have to support the King's son becoming King if it means my son will replace me as Duke, so be it. At least, that's how I've always thought of it. The nobles want to uphold the status quo and the peasants don't really get a say. Plus, propaganda.

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Luke90210 t1_j94v0vz wrote

> how did hereditary monarchs actually hold on to power?

Divinity might help. When the king is seen as a god or chosen by god/gods, it validates his power to everyone. If the autocracy/nobility also derives their power and privileges on the same basis they have little interest in challenging the system.

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Luke90210 t1_j94vdzq wrote

Even having a nuclear weapon might not mean much without a delivery system. Nazi Germany never had a heavy bomber like the US. The Luftwaffe surprisingly didn't even have fuel drop tanks to maximize the range of its planes.

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laszlo92 t1_j94z636 wrote

The democratic tradition in antiquity is hugely overblown.

Athens of course being the prime example of a democracy, but it has absolutely nothing to do with democracy as we know it today. It’s a democracy based on privilege and wealth.

Same goes for Rome’s Res Publica, which was never a democracy. Just because something was a republic does not mean it’s democratic, and obviously Rome developed to an extremely autocratic state.

I’d argue it’s easier for civilizations to expand fast when connected to rivers. The larger a civilization the sooner it’s autocratic.

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king_of_england_bot t1_j94zmie wrote

>King of England

Did you mean the King of the United Kingdom, the King of Canada, the King of Australia, etc?

The last King of England was William III whose successor Anne, with the 1707 Acts of Union, dissolved the title of Queen/King of England.

####FAQ

Isn't King Charles III still also the King of England?

This is only as correct as calling him the King of London or King of Hull; he is the King of the place that these places are in, but the title doesn't exist.

Is this bot monarchist?

No, just pedantic.

I am a bot and this action was performed automatically.

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TheGreatOneSea t1_j9564n1 wrote

It's important to remember three things:

  1. Historical democracy was generally diffrent from modern versions, being either exclusively available to aristocrats, or heavily weighed in their favor; and violence was pretty much always an option for deciding disputes if voting didn't go so well. As such, the difference between a kingdom with democratic elements and one without was often more academic than practical.

  2. Historical democracies often gave way to autocracy: Rome most obviously, but even Athens ended up becoming more of an argument against Democracy than for it given the wars it lost to autocrats.

  3. Democratic impulses aren't always obvious: China might not have voted for emperors or bureaucrats, but the idea of the public overthrowing non-virtuous ones is at least as old as Mencius (300 BC,) and massive popular revolts are a common theme in Chinese history. It may not be conventional, but then, western democracy was also built on incompetent autocrats getting overthrown by the people doing the actual work, so most of the world may just have never gotten the chance to do this once Europe started playing king maker.

As to why western democracy emerged and ultimately dominated, there are probably as many theories as historians, and the effect of trade is certainly a major one, but so is the branching effect of gunpowder coming to dominate warfare. There isn't really a simplified answer.

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j956wsy wrote

When and where?

>But the older I get, the more skeptical I am that the social class just below the monarch would blindly subject themselves to the monarch's authority for the sake of upholding tradition.

They never did. The nobility had no problem revolting or disobeying in states that were often sorely lacking in centralisation; Magna Carta was practically signed at swordpoint for instance, by King John, who was compelled to do so by a bunch of rebellious nobility.

You are not talking about a modern state where we all reluctantly agree to elect a leader, and that leader wields vast power we have no access to. You're talking about a tiny minority who already has an enormous amount of power (physical, financial, political, social, etc) being kept somewhat in line by constant application of power-sharing agreements and marriages, competition, open violence and threats, gifts of land, money, and so on.

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gous_pyu t1_j957is5 wrote

Sometimes it's not the question of who your father is, but who back your claim to the throne. Kings and princes always need to form personal connection with nobles in the court to gain their support in matters of the state, and in return award them with title, land and power. As long as you manage to keep the close circle happy they have no reason to rebel against you, and they'll put their trust on your heir to honor this system. Not to say the status quo can't be changed; rebellion and usurpation happened all the times even in countries with long hereditary tradition. When the nobles dissatisfy with their monarch and see some other person, or other political system, as a better alternative, they're willingly to revolt (look at the English Civil Wars and Glorious Revolution as examples).

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OsoCheco t1_j95a4z7 wrote

Were there "last minute attacks" at the end of WW1, as seen in the new "All quiet on Western front", or was it just dramatic ending for the movie?

Or in any other war, how common was attacking after the peace was signed, but not yet in effect?

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Poikooze t1_j95bgb9 wrote

What are some more recently discovered myths/legends from bygone pantheons?

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j95d8oy wrote

>Were there "last minute attacks" at the end of WW1, as seen in the new "All quiet on Western front",

There were some last minute attacks, but not as seen in the film, which is not historical. The Germans at that point in the war were incapable of offensive action, paralysed by lack of supplies and ammunition, with shockingly low morale and poor unit cohesion. There were British, French, and American attacks right up until the armistice took effect, in order to ensure that the Germans did not manage to gain a secure, sound defensive position and simply wait the armistice out, gathering their strength.

>Or in any other war, how common was attacking after the peace was signed,

The armistice was not a peace treaty, merely a kind of ceasefire. That was the Treaty of Versailles, which wasn't signed until 1919.

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Pacrada t1_j95gp63 wrote

How did the early merovingians devide their territory, before the 'pagi (shire)' and 'county' systems ?

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Bentresh t1_j95seep wrote

Additionally, it is not uncommon for monarchies to contain democratic institutions at the local level. For ancient Near Eastern examples, see Andrea Seri’s Local Power in Old Babylonian Mesopotamia and Daniel Fleming’s Democracy's Ancient Ancestors: Mari and Early Collective Governance.

In any case, a geographic argument is rather dubious. It should be noted that early states in Greece like the Mycenaean kingdoms were in fact monarchies, and kingdoms developed in many regions without unifying rivers — the Canaanite city-states of the Levant, the kingdoms of ancient Cyprus like Idalion and Paphos, Elam and the other kingdoms of ancient Iran, the Anatolian city-states of the Early/Middle Bronze Age and the subsequent Hittite empire, etc., to say nothing of societies further afield like the Maya kingdoms of Mesoamerica.

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laszlo92 t1_j95sl9z wrote

Definitely true. If we look at how local cities were governed in the eastern part of the Roman Empire it was basically as democratic as you get in that time.

Organized in what was known as the Boulè, it was basically a democracy of the rich.

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Tanuk1ss t1_j95zgro wrote

How were the Mongolian mounted archery named?

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Thibaudborny t1_j96lewp wrote

A lot of good answers have been given pertaining to this not being an absolute concept. Still, there was a traditional order that, by and large, remained accepted in many regions. If we stick with, for example, medieval Europe , the example of Henry II before Toulouse may be instructive.

The Angevin king Henry II ruled one of the most powerful kingdoms of 12th century Europe, and this created a fair amount of tension in the complicated diplomatic web that was feudal Europe. So in 1159, the king of England had set his sights on conquering Toulouse, a piece of territory disputed between him and count Raymond. Now Raymond was the brother-in-law to the king of France, Louis VII. Louis was worried since Henry - also his vassal on the continent, as he was only king in England - was already so darn powerful, acquiring Toulouse would only strengthen his position. Yet ultimately, he made a genius move. As Henry II arrived before Toulouse at the head of one of the largests contemporary armies, his heart sank when he saw the banner hoisted over the city: Louis VII had taken up quarters inside before his army arrived...

The game was up, and Henry knew it. He ordered his army to ransack the countryside and went back home, failing his ultimate objective. So, what happened? Why did Henry hold back & why is this instructive for your question?

Because Henry had sworn fealty to Louis (for those lands for which he was beholden to him). Henry himself had more than enough rebellious lords under him, keen to resist his royal authority. To attack Toulouse with Louis inside was to break all his oaths he had sworn (under his god), making him that thing medieval society as an honour-culture despised so hard: the honourless oathbreaker. So Henry knew that if here and now he pressed his claim on Toulouse and violated the person of Louis VII, he would enable each and every lord who held a grudge towards him from Scotland to the Pyrenees, to safely renounce their allegiance and rebel.

Medieval society, like many, was structured on concepts of honour, typically expressed through oaths and the like. People took these seriously, for breaking the social contract - then as much as now - renders one open to the fallout.

So many things underpinned royal authority, from the more raw aspects of money and power (soft or hard) to the those of concepts of legitimacy.

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king_of_england_bot t1_j96lg2y wrote

>king of England

Did you mean the King of the United Kingdom, the King of Canada, the King of Australia, etc?

The last King of England was William III whose successor Anne, with the 1707 Acts of Union, dissolved the title of Queen/King of England.

####FAQ

Isn't King Charles III still also the King of England?

This is only as correct as calling him the King of London or King of Hull; he is the King of the place that these places are in, but the title doesn't exist.

Is this bot monarchist?

No, just pedantic.

I am a bot and this action was performed automatically.

0

Adam_Ch t1_j96lm9w wrote

What was the usage of other drugs like during America's 1920s alcohol prohibition?

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SherbertEquivalent66 t1_j96s2wk wrote

WWII was on once Germany invaded Poland in 1939. But, they wiped out French and British forces in France quickly. IMO, invading the USSR was the beginning of the end for them because it stretched out their supply lines and put them in a two front war once the US attacked them from the south and then the west (and bombed out their factories).

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GSilky t1_j97g7ci wrote

IDK, medieval history seems to be mostly about the king fighting with his vassals, and then when the king dies, vassals fighting with the princes.

In Persian and Turkish history, there always seems to be a period when one brother kills all the others and then becomes king and has to go and put down all the revolts that spring up.

So I would say mostly through superior violence is how the hereditary monarch maintains their power.

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GSilky t1_j97hk0y wrote

Your talking about "hydraulic despotism". It might be real, but we can't know for sure. Basically, the despot oversees the water supply for irrigation and, due to the nature of the enterprise, is given full power over it and the society that relies on it. You can see it in other places as well with other resources. Thomas Friedman says the same thing is going on with petroleum, as nations that base their economy on oil almost all have dictatorships.

The reality is that the Hellenic democracies evolved out of despotism, as did Roman republicanism. Urbanism probably had more to do with democratizing Greece and Rome than environment. All the destabilizing able people living in a city rather than on their own lands created a requirement that they all have a chance to exercise power.

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GSilky t1_j97i0wt wrote

While I can't name any particular ones, as more things are translated and spread the mythology of Siberia, Central Asia, and the Native Americans are being discovered. I would start there if you are interested in new myths.

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jezreelite t1_j97pieq wrote

The relationship between monarchs and their nobility was often extremely fraught, so much so that most of Asian and European history involves monarchs and nobility trying to curb the power of the other.

If enough of the nobility decided that the current monarch was not to their liking for whatever reason, they could and often did choose to back someone else, who could be a relative of the current monarch or someone else entirely. Most of ancient and medieval history in much of Europe and Asia is that happening over and over again.

China did away with its warrior aristocrat class first and replaced them with scholar officials, but that didn't prevent the eventual toppling of all subsequent dynasties when economic and political troubles inevitably occurred.

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elmonoenano t1_j986mrg wrote

To build on /u/Doctor_Impossible_ answer, the person usually counted as the final casualty in the war was a US soldier, Henry Gunther who was taking part in the Meuse -Argonne offensive. It was a joint offensive by the US and France. Gunther apparently died at 10:59.

But France especially was pushing for these advances up until the last minute. They had suffered extraordinary casualties and now that they had US reinforcements, new and better tactics, and restored morale they were trying to get every benefit they could out of the fighting before armistice.

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elmonoenano t1_j98ayaz wrote

This is a version of environmental determinism. It basically comes out of the Victorian "race science" with things like phrenology and it's bunk. It starts from a bad assumption and then works backwards. So, it starts by assuming Anglo Saxon protestant and Nordic peoples are the superior race and then tries to make up evidence to support it.

There was just as much democratic tradition in the Americas, Polynesia, Australia, and Africa, but b/c a decision was already made about those cultures the evidence was either ignored, or more often not even considered. Ideas of tribal communities with all power chiefs was assumed to be their system of governance and that was that.

It was mostly used as a justification of colonialism and imperialism. In the Americas it's also very closely tied to the justifications of genocide and land appropriation of the indigenous residents.

On top of that, it just doesn't make sense. Florida is also a peninsula. Korea is also a peninsula, south east Asia is basically peninsula after peninsula. There's mountains pretty much everywhere and the biggest mountains are in Asia. There's natural harbors along pretty much every coast and some places, like the Gulf of Mexico is basically one big harbor. The Americas were probably the most forested land in the world, and still are. No one is looking at Brazil for examples of democracy.

No respected historians believe it b/c it's so easy to find counterexamples.

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Hungry_Nail9832 t1_j98h0n7 wrote

Yeah I figured as much. That why I said I don't know if it's accurate. But he did live through it and he was a consultant. So he probably told many of the smaller details correct. Just now the hero and villan aspect

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IPlayFifaOnSemiPro t1_j99zr8j wrote

Is there any examples of tribunes who actually used their powers to look after the plebeian class, apart from the Gracchi brothers

TIA !

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notgoblin1 t1_j9b0gyq wrote

How many 800mm Railway Guns did Germany build in WW2?

I’ve been looking around for a while and I can’t find two sources that agree on anything, I’ve already posted in the ask subreddits. Hoping someone can point me in the direction of any useful information!

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Equivalent_Alps_8321 t1_j9bya7f wrote

Hey guys are there any books about Winston Churchill's depression? How about Sherman or Grant's?

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INAGF t1_j9byt50 wrote

What is a reliable news source for academic developments? I want to keep up with new findings and (major) studies. I want to be up to date with new breakthroughs and the like.

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Kookat73 t1_j9ceiqp wrote

Hi, I know that throughout the 19th century, advances in archaeology and historical study of ancient near east and the decipherment of texts, heavily impacted questions on the historicity of the different parts of the bible. I was wondering if there are any books which tell the story of how these discoveries changed and impacted biblical studies specifically in 19th century, thanks!

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robertstobe t1_j9d1xf2 wrote

Are there any books or resources for adults that give a broad overview of modern history, especially through the lens of CRT or something similar? I didn’t learn much of history in school, and what I did learn was through American-colored glasses.

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Traditional_Cost5119 t1_j9e7fur wrote

Was the Pax Romana the longest period of peace in Europe during the last 2000 years?

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Olaboeh6275 t1_j9eyx0u wrote

A man who "magically" healed people in the past, his name starts with a R, but i couldnt remember the rest. He is called anti christ by a few people i think. Does anyone know his name?

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Severe-Cheesecake-15 t1_j9fjlbv wrote

Any books on the impact of geography on history? I know Jared Diamond wrote one, however are there any other books tackling a similar subject?

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shantipole t1_j9g9ofp wrote

"Peace" in this case was entirely relative. There were multiple civil and foreign wars as well as a couple of outright conquests during that time. For example, the Battle of the Tuetoberg Forest (3 legions more-or-less wiped out), the Great Jewish Revolt (up to 350k killed, Jerusalem sacked, the Jewish Temple destroyed, etc.) and the conquest of Britain (hundreds of thousands killed, plus conquered a lot of territory) all happened during the Pax Romana.

Compared to the period of civil wars and purges that started with Marius and Sulla and eventually ended with Octavian and Anthony, or the Crisis of the 3rd Century, the Pax Romana was pretty peaceful for the Empire as a whole, but there was not an absence of war.

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Overall-Face6935 t1_j9i48v0 wrote

was the warring states period before or after the 3 kingdoms?

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un_lechuguino t1_j9j5uwb wrote

Would it make sense for a medieval squire/man-at-arms to wear a leather vest+skirt combo over a full chainmail suit? Or would it be more common to just wear some clothes over the mail if they wanted to show the colors of their master?

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9jxm12 wrote

>medieval

When, because that's about a thousand years.

>to wear a leather vest+skirt combo over a full chainmail suit?

I don't think I've ever heard of such a thing.

>Or would it be more common to just wear some clothes over the mail if they wanted to show the colors of their master?

You might be thinking of a surcoat, jupon, or tabard, depending upon the era. These could be simple colours or embroidered, and while a squire would want to show his allegiance, for most of that era a man-at-arms wouldn't get the same sort of consideration, and many of them would be lucky to get a 'uniform'.

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t0gi_ t1_j9k13zd wrote

Could someone please give me ALL the reasons King John signed the Magna carta ?

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9kmup9 wrote

He was unpopular, he was by a large measure unsuccessful in his rule and particularly in his conflicts with France, he did not have a particularly strong position, a civil war would be both difficult and costly when he was already not doing well financially, and he had no intention of adhering to it anyway.

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bangdazap t1_j9kp33s wrote

Israel Finkelstein's The Bible Unearthed sort of covers this topic for the Old Testament.

Edit: and IIRC, Bart D. Ehrman's Jesus, Interrupted does the same for the New Testament.

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shantipole t1_j9l3k2d wrote

The two governing factors here are likely padding and heat. If they're only wearing one leather article of clothing, it would be under the mail to provide extra padding to both further spread out the force of a blow and to provide better protection in the event a blow got through the chain links.

If they're wearing a padded aketon/gambeson and then mail, and then a leather waistcoat, that's basically wearing two winter coats with 20 lbs/10kg of weight in the middle. The heat load is going to be severe.

In battle, if they're wearing their knight's colors or badge, you'd be more likely to see it on a shield, a strip of cloth tied around an upper arm, a light surcoat/tabard, or a hat/helmet badge. But, they're not going to be in full harness most of the time, and a leather coat with a badge could be reasonable "around town" uniform/light armor, just like they might carry a large-but-not-huge knife instead of their battleaxe when going into town. As.a garment, it's an extravagant use of leather, but it's not crazy.

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shantipole t1_j9l6q3f wrote

It's kind of the same answer. You had Caligula, Nero/the Year of Four Emperors, and Domitian (and the tail end of Augustus's reign for that matter) during the Pax Romana. You also had significant internal revolts (Boudica's revolt, Judea--3 times, etc.). Those years weren't particularly stable, though they weren't as bad as the Optimates vs. the Populares or the Crisis.

Looking at Europe as a whole and the longest period of peace, I think the correct answer is that the sad, tribal apes that make up the human race can't go 50 years without trying to kill each other. The best we can do is relative peace (the Pax) or stability in a single area (e.g. England was pretty stable and secure most of the 1153 -1455 time period).

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jiboxiake t1_j9lmp45 wrote

Are there any studies about the demographics of the Mongolian Empire's military?

Consider the Mongolian while powerful, make up only a small population of all the people they rule. And there are several major wars from different Mongolian Khanate. So who make the majority of their soldiers? I would guess the Chinese because several Mongolian military actions were against those Chinese dynasties so they should have ruled lots of Chinese. But are there any formal documents or studies about that? Thanks.

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GOLDIEM_J t1_j9m52pm wrote

Did the British gain anything from pressuring others into abolition?

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GEARHEADGus t1_j9n46q4 wrote

How the hell do i find historiographies?

I’ve searched to no avail. I’ve tried google, but ever since they messed with algorithm its dogshit.

Im trying to find a historiography of prohibition (temperance.) if anyone can help, id appreciate it

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9oqfes wrote

Not directly. I think there might have been many intangible benefits, and certainly it may have interfered with and complicated the economies of rivals, and certainly had knock-on effects on their trade, but it's not like there was an abolition betting pool the British Empire was making big money on; abolition efforts were costly and time-consuming.

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MeatballDom t1_j9r5kne wrote

it can be tough, but the first place to start would be in the works of the most recent studies on the topic published for an academic audience. Look for ones that are published by University of _____ Press, and the like. Usually there will be a historiography in the introduction or first chapter. This isn't a universal rule, but it's the quickest way.

Now if you are studying to be a historian, building your own is good practice and a skill you'll need to get down before you get to the postgraduate level. Again, you'd want to start with the most recent academic works published by university presses and the like. Things that are peer-reviewed, and written for an academic audience. See who they keep mentioning, who they keep citing, and note whether it's in agreement, or disagreement. Then trace that back, who are those people citing, who are they discussing, and again their thoughts. What new evidence or approaches are they bringing to the table? Eventually it will become evident who the big dogs are, the most impactful works, study those ones well. Build an annotated bibliography to help keep things sorted (and to remind you of what you've already read and the gist of it) and then once you have that solid foundation it's about then approaching it from the start and showing how the field grew, and changed, over time and what's now missing and how your own research will fit into that gap.

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raviolijr t1_j9s4yce wrote

Was opium illegal in Britain while they were in porting it to China during the Opium Wars

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9t5d0u wrote

No, and 'Britain' wasn't importing it into China. It was imported by merchants that were British, American, Indian, and Chinese. Neither the Royal Navy nor the East India Company imported opium into China before the Opium War, because it was technically illegal, despite usage being commonplace. Independent traders imported it, and handed it off to Chinese smugglers before it reached China, because foreigners, outside of some very small enclaves, were not allowed into China.

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9t8azi wrote

The abolition movement was genuinely popular, alongside a developing legal and religious situation that bestowed 'personhood' (to use a clumsy term) on people that were foreign or otherwise not British (who could not be slaves, by longstanding precedent). Religion had a lot of weight in social and cultural terms, and added to that, you had many respectable establishment people who took up the cause where Quakers and freed slaves could not; there was a genuine confluence of humanist and religious thought around slavery, which was not just in Britain. The French constitutions late in the 18th century also abolished slavery (although they were interrupted for other reasons), and events like the Haitian Revolution signaled a severe change in what people feared or predicted would come from slave populations. One of the political parties in the British Parliament, the Whigs, were ostensibly abolitionist, and only grew to be more so as time went on; this was a fairly obvious pressure point to use when the sugar trade grew to be less profitable, and slavery grew to be even more unpopular.

Certainly it wasn't entirely a moral issue, but it offered a sense of moral superiority and the economic case for slavery seemed to be getting shakier, alongside a much wider dissemination of just how inhuman the slave trade was, in terms of conditions, punishments, and deaths.

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aylinminbabe t1_j9t8jal wrote

Can someone please explain what the Chetnicks (cetnici) under the Yugoslavian war is?

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Apprehensive-Sir-495 t1_j9thcby wrote

Every historian I talk to says that before the 1800s, people thought that children inherited characteristics from only their father. The belief was supposedly that the mother was only an "oven" and did not contribute characteristics to the child. However, I don't think people could have thought this, as there are so many obvious cases when a child inherits characteristics from their mother. Is this evidence that history is bunk and historians have little idea what they are talking about?

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Doctor_Impossible_ t1_j9tnu72 wrote

I don't know of a penal unit like that (although one may very well have existed!), but a great many units were free to persecute Bosniaks, and many have been named, such as the Serb Volunteer Guard, Chetnik Avengers, White Eagles, etc. Serbian paramilitaries were used to 'cleanse' their local areas of other ethnic groups, often simply committing mass murder.

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Malris6 t1_j9u770c wrote

Hi! I've pondering these questions for weeks now, but still could not find the answers. Hope you can help me.

https://imgur.com/a/rgtTpXy

Was the medieval armour evolution and general style(pic. 1) universal across the Europe(aside from the Eastern part)?

If not, did the Normans severely change the military armour style of the Anglo-Saxons? Would the English have evolved their protective gear on their own towards coat of plates, plated brigandines, surcoats etc.(pic. 2, I've chosen Denmark, beacuse the Danes are probably the closest to the Anglo-Saxons, since they are both Germanic and from about the same geographical region) or would they have gone for something like Anglo-Saxon based Rohan soldiers have(pic. 3-4) in the LOTR movies(I know they are fiction, but it can be somewhat considered as a possible way of progression)?

Also, it is known the origin of the English Longbow is disputed, but is it safe to assume the Normans heavily prompted archey in England since it is they who started a battle by bowmen.

Sorry for any possible inaccuracies.

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Irichcrusader t1_j9ubpj2 wrote

Pax Romana by Adrian Goldsworthy looks at this very question. Been a long while since I read it but I think his conclusion was that the pax Romana was a relatively peaceful and stable period compared to what had come before and after. That said, this does have to be measured against what was done to achieve it. Roman conquest could be incredibly brutal and they had no compunctions about wiping out entire people groups, enslaving and/or relocating them, and colonizing their own people. The period was also marked by a number of wars and rebellions but, comparatively speaking, these were pretty minor and very localized. Within a couple generations of conquest, most people had learned to accept Roman overlordship and focused their efforts on moving up in the hierarchy.

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Irichcrusader t1_j9ug1wa wrote

Adding to all the excellent answers here, there were also cases like that of Charles VI of France, who ascended the throne at the age of 11 in 1380. However, he was regulated to the position of a regent by his uncles who called most of the shots in how things were done. He had a very hard time, even after coming of age, asserting his position as the monarch. He eventually did, though that was also debilitated by the madness that seized him in later years.

Interesting question honestly. You got to wonder what was going through a noble's mind when he saw that the heir was young, sick, or mad. They respected traditions but they were also pragmatic enough to see that there were ways of working around an invalidated monarch.

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Kobbett t1_j9vm66b wrote

Opium was unregulated in Britain until about 1862, when sales were restricted to pharmacies only. Serious regulation didn't happen until 1920 when sales of opiates required approval by a doctor.

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Sgt_Colon t1_j9wt06z wrote

I'm guessing this is for some alternate history thing?

The first image for 1100 would have been broadly accurate for western Europe during the preceding 11^th C, while regional variations existed, they tend to be not overly pronounced unless economic factors (like in the celtic fringe) enter play. Later English plate armour did see variation from continental patterns, favouring longer rerebraces than other continental styles, perhaps as a reflection of the English predilection for fighting on foot at the time, but were at a glance similar to the general trend of plate armours. While Peter Jackson's Rohirrim are fictional, the use of leather over maille in the form of cuir boiulle was an actual historical trend during the late 13^th to early 14^th C as a sort of proto plate armour during the transitional period with some extent pieces surviving.

Regarding archery, while the Normans seem to have imported the Frankish custom of the poorest levies being armed as bowmen, the Saxons too practiced archery and seemed to have incorporated it into the 'shieldwall'. Archery for both peoples wasn't very respected, even compared to fighting in the main line of battle as a common levy and would only see a greater degree of use following the battle of Falkirk and the effective display of archery by the welsh brought along by Edward I. Prior to this, archers were seen as being of limited overall importance (see the ineffective stopping power against even unarmoured targets such as that at the battle of the standard for example) albeit a necessary one, being valued significantly less than crossbowmen who performed far better in terms of range and power. Clifford Rogers goes into some detail regarding what I've written. What the course of English warfare may have been had the Saxons repulsed the Normans is uncertain, although it is possible if the tradition of fighting on foot continued that it may have mirrored the latter English practice during the Hundred Years wars with massed archers and well armed heavy infantry although it may have just as likely have went the same path as Denmark and adopted aristocratic heavy cavalry in some form.

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Expert_Quarter9220 t1_ja3vqmn wrote

definitely not as much of an academic answer as everyone else gave here, but your question reminds me of how when Queen Elizabeth II died, no one (or at least i didnt hear of anyone) questioned who was next in line to the throne. maybe we do just blindly accept this stuff and maybe they did the same thing back then? plus they had all the religious arguments that it was their divine right to rule- cant mess with gods choice!

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