Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments

Clickbaitllama t1_iue7yge wrote

Reply to comment by NaZul15 in Question: what headphones can take balanced output? by NaZul15

You do realize that it could be your brain just believing the bass is tighter, hence it being placebo?

Like not trying to be an ass but saying "the bass is tighter I hear it" isn't a very good defense to someone saying that what you hear is placebo.

6

NaZul15 OP t1_iue8xv8 wrote

Bro.. Why so skeptical? I could definitely hear it.

Answer from another commenter: > Certain devices may favor one output over the other, it doesn't make the "balanced" headphone output universally "better". Let me use the Cayin iHA-6 and your Sony as an example... via the trs (SE) output they would see a 10 ohm output impedance to a 16 ohm nominal headphone, this is an impedance matching issue. Assuming the Sonys are like most dynamic headphones there will be a rise in impedance near the reasonance frequency of the driver... in the bass region... that gets boosted when fed a high output impedance.

> Via either the dual 3 pin XLR or 4 pin XLR that same Cayin has a .3 ohm output impedance which would NOT result in any measurable FR changes. Headphones below 80 ohms are best ran via these "balanced outputs", above that threshold there are minimal differences between the two on that device.

2

Clickbaitllama t1_iuekt4l wrote

i’m not skeptical, what i’m saying is that your defense doesn’t in any way disprove that what you are hearing is placebo. I’m not giving any opinion if what you are hearing is placebo or not

And fyi, while what the redditor you are quoting is right, what he is saying doesn’t apply to you since the Quedlix has the same output impendance from the balanced and unbalanced port, meaning it wouldn’t be a factor. He was using a complelty diffrent amp as an example.

3

NaZul15 OP t1_iuepwcb wrote

Then maybe the increase in voltage. The difference is big enough to safely say it's not placebo. If that was the case all headphones are different from eachother because of placebo, not bc they actually sound a little different (hd600 and hd650 for example)

−2

Clickbaitllama t1_iuerzyd wrote

  1. Like everyone is saying, it’s probably because you are listening to source louder than the other. Louder usually equals better, especially in the bass region

  2. The reason why we know that a hd650 sounds diffrent than an hd600 is because there are a multitude of graphs published by established sources with industry equipment that show those 2 headphones are diffrent

6

NaZul15 OP t1_iueu0qp wrote

I purposefully try to listen at the same volume bc i don't wanna damage my hearing, and the hd600 thing is just figurative

−2