Submitted by AnanomusMan t3_zx1rl1 in explainlikeimfive
Why can't STDs be cured by isolating the people that have the infection?
I know this sounds like a stupid question, but it is a serious one. Basically, if two people don't have herpes or any STD for that matter, shouldn't they have 0 chance of transmitting it? If this is the case, why is there no way of limiting the spread of STDs by limiting the interaction between infected, and non-infected people?
hasdigs t1_j1y89fl wrote
They could. When you get the clap, you go to the doctor and take an antibiotic. That's it, so if everyone in the world could stop fucking for one day and take a pill, no more Chlamydia!
The problem being good fucking luck with that. People tend to be very irresponsible and even more so when the prospect of having sex is on the cards. Hell it's hard enough to get people to wear condoms and go for regular std checks. Some people think it's totally acceptable behaviour to spread disease as revenge for a cheating ex or whatever.
Then you need to ask yourself who is isolating these people and how? Is this some kind of authoritarian regime? Who's gonna pay for the 7 billion antibiotics? Ect. Maybe it could be done in a small population, but it would only take a handful to fuck it up for everyone and make it all a waste of time and if covid has taught us anything it's that people are selfish pricks.