Submitted by [deleted] t3_ygrz69 in explainlikeimfive
Chromotron t1_iuap2ai wrote
Reply to comment by superbyrd22000 in Eli5: Infinity ♾️ by [deleted]
> One can't "count" all of the decimals because you can always pick another decimals between A and B.
This is unrelated to "counting". The rationals satisfy the very same property, yet can be counted. But all decimals, i.e., real numbers, cannot be counted, they are "uncountable".
Conversely, there are uncountable "discrete" ordered sets where nothing is between a number and its two neighbours. Hence the property you speak of and being (un)countable are independent, neither implies the other.
breckenridgeback t1_iuaziy4 wrote
> Conversely, there are uncountable "discrete" ordered sets where nothing is between a number and its two neighbours.
That's not true, and it's (relatively) easy to prove.
Consider a set S that is a subset of the reals, with the property that for each s in S there exist two numbers u and l (for "upper" and "lower") such that u < s < l and there are no numbers x for which u < x < s or s < x < l. In other words, u is the "next biggest" number and l is the "next smallest" (this formalizes the idea you've stated informally).
For each s in S, consider the radius R = min(d(s,u), d(s, l)) (of course, R, u, and l all depend on s, but reddit markdown means I'm gonna skip the subscripts). This radius is basically just the "minimum spacing" around s. Such an R exists for each s, and is strictly positive. Since R is strictly positive, so is R/2. And since the rationals are dense in the reals, we can find two rational numbers a and b (again, also dependent on s) such that s - R/2 < a < s < b < s + R/2. In other words, we can find an interval of rational numbers (a,b) that does not overlap the corresponding interval for any other s in S.
Now, consider the function f: S -> (Q x Q) that takes each element s in S and maps it onto the ordered pair of the interval generated by the process in the previous paragraph. This function is clearly injective, since none of the intervals (a,b) overlap (so they certainly cannot be the same), but the set (Q x Q) is a Cartesian product of countable sets and therefore countable. Since we have an injection from S to a countable set, S is itself (at most) countable.
Chromotron t1_iue4c7b wrote
> Consider a set S that is a subset of the reals,
That's where you went wrong: the set is simply not required to be contained in the reals. You can give any set X a total ordering such that the induced topology is discrete; similarly, we can give X a metric that makes it discrete, the discrete metric.
breckenridgeback t1_iuenf2y wrote
Oh, I thought you were claiming an uncountable discrete subset of the reals (since your comparison was the rationals). Yes, obviously you can give any set the discrete topology (although the discussion of "between" suggests something more like an order metric?)
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