Submitted by Significant_Neat_688 t3_125aflx in explainlikeimfive
There have been a lot of cases where a celebrity is accused of something and settles it outside of court for hefty prices. How come that isn't taken as an admission that the allegations are true? If they weren't, wouldn't the celebrity just fight it and counter-sue for defamation? After all, innocent until proven guilty, right?
It runs on the same vein as how paying a blackmailer typically means the blackmailer's information is true.
EDIT: I'm talking about huge settlements, like tens of millions.
thoschei t1_je3aumx wrote
Court cases are expensive and very time consuming. If you’re a rich enough celebrity, money isn’t a huge deal. Easy to pay less than 1% of your net worth and make a problem go away instead of drawing it out, regardless of guilt