Submitted by Significant_Neat_688 t3_125aflx in explainlikeimfive
There have been a lot of cases where a celebrity is accused of something and settles it outside of court for hefty prices. How come that isn't taken as an admission that the allegations are true? If they weren't, wouldn't the celebrity just fight it and counter-sue for defamation? After all, innocent until proven guilty, right?
It runs on the same vein as how paying a blackmailer typically means the blackmailer's information is true.
EDIT: I'm talking about huge settlements, like tens of millions.
cxGiCOLQAMKrn t1_je3cwrd wrote
You're conflating two different things. "Guilt" and "innocence" only apply to criminal law. Settling a case only happens in civil courts.
Criminal cases are brought by the government (district attorney), and cannot be settled. The punishments for criminal offenses are fines, community service, and/or jail time (possibly other conditions such as required addiction counseling). If someone is found guilty, they owe their fine to the government. The closest thing to "settling" a criminal case is to take a plea deal, meaning you do admit guilt, usually in exchange for a lesser sentence than you might receive if found guilty at trial. In some cases, the DA might also offer to drop charges if you give them information which leads to a more serious case against someone else.
Civil cases are brought by a third party, and the punishments are generally limited to money. If someone loses a civil case, they owe money to the person who sued them. There is no crime for them to be "guilty" of. Settling a case means they made an agreement with the person suing them, who agreed to drop the lawsuit in exchange for some payment.