Submitted by noobia0009 t3_126wvcb in explainlikeimfive
mynewaccount4567 t1_jebo5xh wrote
Reply to comment by twist3d7 in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009
No, I believe the tickle test was the primary test for death at the time. While it was pretty good for the technology of the time, it’s nowhere near as accurate as the stick test
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