ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? Submitted by noobia0009 t3_126wvcb on March 30, 2023 at 7:32 PM in explainlikeimfive 24 comments 3
hisglasses66 t1_jebklf4 wrote on March 30, 2023 at 8:38 PM More than a few of the most populous countries on earth still prefer boys over girls. And we sort of know what happens after that. I’m thinking China, India…maybe Bangladesh? Pakistan. Permalink 2
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