Submitted by noobia0009 t3_126wvcb in explainlikeimfive
aLovverincombat t1_jebjmfr wrote
Reply to comment by XsNR in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009
Yeah, I also remember reading somewhere that the mortality rate for women giving birth in the US is the highest in the “first world”. Considering the costs associated with it too, it’s outrageous.
It’s not something that will be effectively addressed the way things are right now either.
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