ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? Submitted by noobia0009 t3_126wvcb on March 30, 2023 at 7:32 PM in explainlikeimfive 24 comments 3
Greenbootie t1_jebgxni wrote on March 30, 2023 at 8:15 PM About 52% of births are male. By the time you reach 18 the population is near 50/50 due to a higher male death rate. In later adulthood there are more women. So it averages to approximately 1:1. Permalink 3
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