Submitted by Reason-Local t3_11de5ag in explainlikeimfive
PM_ur_Rump t1_ja9kw7z wrote
Reply to comment by Iminlesbian in ELI5: why does/doesn’t probability increase when done multiple times? by Reason-Local
The odds that they win twice in a lifetime is much more unlikely than the odds they win once.
But after they won once, the odds of winning again are exactly the same as if they had never won.
Think of the dice example. There is a one in six chance of rolling a specific number. Rolling again, there is still a one in six chance of rolling that same number. The number of sides hasn't changed, the number you chose didn't magically disappear.
The odds only change if you bet that you will roll two in a row before the first roll, because you are now betting on both events before they happen, not on a single event happening. The events themselves have no influence on each other.
Iminlesbian t1_ja9lehu wrote
Ah I get it, thanks a lot. The lottery chances "resetting" after the first win actually makes sense to me.
I think that's where my head gets confused. If I saw a plane crash I'd think of it as "well there's no chance of two of that thing happening today!" Rather than " it's still just as likely to happen today."
PM_ur_Rump t1_ja9mk20 wrote
Glad I could help ya figure something out! It's definitely a bit counterintuitive at first, and I once had the same confusion. Cheers!
SYLOH t1_jaav09w wrote
Do note. The guy seems to be talking about simple odds using real plane crashes for some reason.
Real world statistics do not work that way.
In the real world plane crashes are not independent events.
In the real world you knowledge of the odds of plane crashes is not complete.
A plane crash will cause the ground crew and flight crew to change their behavior, shifting the odds.
A plane crash is evidence that your assumptions on the safety of a given model of plane might be incorrect.
In the magical world of simple odds, safety audits and groundings wouldn't make a lick of sense. They do in the real world.
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