Submitted by BluePrimulus t3_11b8hv6 in explainlikeimfive
It's generally assumed that major keys "sound happy" and minor keys "sound sad". Of course that's an oversimplification, but I think it's fair to say that they DO evoke different emotional responses. What I'm wondering is, why? It's just a collection of arbitrary tones arranged in an arbitrary pattern. Why do our brains perceive the difference in such a complex (but consistent) way? The emotional association seems like it's universal - does that mean the correlation is biologically innate?
puppersandcoffee t1_j9wl814 wrote
I recently listened to a neuroscience podcast that says we have been conditioned to associate them that way.