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Avedisride t1_is619qu wrote

Reply to comment by mublacksmith in [OC] The Legal Age of Consent Around the World (2019) by eqqqxy

Saudi Arabia, Iran, Brunei, Afghanistan, Indonesia, Sudan, Pakistan, Nigeria and Qatar

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mublacksmith t1_is6962m wrote

but how can they all be "sharia law countries" when they don't have the same law. Oh wait, none of them is.

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Avedisride t1_is69dlo wrote

Because they all allow for Hudub punishments based on Sharia law.

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mublacksmith t1_is6a4wa wrote

but how can they have different laws or punishments when all of those countries you listed are following the same "sharia law" you say. Also, can you refer me to a book that is called sharia law? and can you explain what the other muslim-majority countries you didn't list follow as a law?

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Avedisride t1_is6d21x wrote

Countries that use specific penalties corresponding to crimes outlined in the Quran and in Hadith are in this context considered a "Sharia law country". This isn't some set in stone rule to follow, I'm just explaining to you what the commenter you questioned was referring to.

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mublacksmith t1_is6hck1 wrote

That's not true though, if all of those countries followed the rulings in the Quran, wouldn't they have the same law? you keep avoiding this question. All of those countries follow man made laws, even if they sugar coat them. Otherwise every country would have the same law, which is not real since if you look at the OP's post, as an example, none of those countries have the "same" age for consent or marriage, i.e. they don't follow the same law because there's no such thing as sharia law, it's all man made.

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Avedisride t1_is6irci wrote

If any of your laws have a crime that's corresponding punishment's are outline in the Quran or in Hadith such as stoning or beheading, in this context your considered a country that still practices Sharia law and/or a "Sharia law country". Your argument is that because every law followed in these countries isn't only based on this that it doesn't exist. The term here is being used colloquially, doctrine isn't used to outline every law in their countries but it is used to dole out particular cruel punishments for breaking certain laws.

Edit. "Particular, cruel"

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uniqueusername14175 t1_isflbpn wrote

If all christians follow the same bible wouldn’t there only be one type of christian and not thousands of different sects?

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mublacksmith t1_isfvw23 wrote

Except each church has its own bible while there's only one quran.

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uniqueusername14175 t1_isgagup wrote

The bible is written in Aramaic, greek and Hebrew. Any book not in those languages is just a translation of the bible. Translations are not exact, they’re open to interpretation. An example would be idioms. Raining cats and dogs is a common idiom in english but doesn’t translate to other languages with the same meaning. Someone unfamiliar with the idiom could read it to mean animals falling out of the sky, whereas someone familiar with it would read it to mean heavy rain, as intended.

Each church has its own translation of the bible based on someones interpretation of the meaning of the scripts in their original language. The Quran is almost always read in Arabic. That’s why it’s easier for you to see why different groups of christians exist. They’ve codified their interpretations of the bible into a translated book they still call the bible, except it now agrees with their world views.

Muslim countries do the same thing when they make up shariah based laws, except they don’t bother rewriting the Quran every time someone reinterprets the meaning of a part of it. They just say ‘this is what the Quran means by this so this is what the law is’.

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