In the US, the gap between Black and White Homeownership is widening with each generation [OC]Centrismo t1_j9whc0y wrote
Reply to comment by DD_equals_doodoo in In the US, the gap between Black and White Homeownership is widening with each generation [OC] by Apartment_List
I think you can demonstrate that homeownership is becoming less accessible over time.
I don’t think the america=bad trope is valid though.
From my perspective I think a decline in home ownership is the expected and inevitable result of increasing urbanization and the inherent logistical challenges of building high population density cities. Its a trend that we can observe in most if not all countries. Thats not necessarily bad, its just a societal transition from the suburban to urban.
The homeless rate has been declining, which indicates that the housing situation is improving. However when compared to the increase in rental rates for apartments and the relatively stagnant rental rates for houses we can only say that the number of housed individuals is increasing, we cannot say the number of home owners is increasing.
The links I provided above show the per capita rate of home ownership is declining overtime while the per capita rate of renters is increasing, at least over the last 20 years. Personally I think we should try to reverse this trend, but it may not be logistically possible at our population level.
My general impression is that we are heading toward an era where the majority of people are renters and I think we can expect a further class divide to emerge between renters and owners. This is not unique to America, but rather a consequence of the global trend toward high density urban development and exacerbated by the neoliberal economic policies that have been dominant since the 80s that have caused wages to decouple from the inflation rate.
DD_equals_doodoo t1_j9wi7nr wrote
I think you can demonstrate that homeownership is becoming less accessible over time.
... My original comment that seemed to cause you so much heartburn literally showed homeownership rates have increased since the 60s. Take the opinions out of the equation...
Aside from that, I show you the U.S. is better regarding homelessness compared with supposedly "better" countries and you immediately shift the goal post...
>My general impression is that we are heading toward an era where the
majority of people are renters and I think we can expect a further class
divide to emerge between renters and owners.
How can you possibly arrive at that conclusion when your initial complaint was over my source which showed that homeownership rates have actually increased since the 1960s....
You're a hammer in search of nails.
Centrismo t1_j9wkyhi wrote
I guess you didn’t look at your original source again like I asked. It does not track the number of people who own homes. That chart tracked the “homeownership rate” which is specifically the percentage of homes that are occupied by the owner of the home.
Hypothetically If you have 100 people and 50 of them live in a house, of those 50 lets say 25 own the home and 25 rent the home, then the per capita rate of people that own homes would be 25% while the “homeownership rate” as defined by your source would be 50%.
DD_equals_doodoo t1_j9wlmi4 wrote
Oh my gosh. My guy... you're being needlessly pedantic here. I showed you **RATES** by country. Do you understand what that means?
I've taught undergrads, grads, doctoral students for over a decade and, to be honest, you're possibly the most stubborn person I've encountered in my life.
You do you. Good luck. You win! You're the best ever. Whatever.
[deleted] t1_j9wn31x wrote
[deleted]
Centrismo t1_j9wmmla wrote
Please address the previous comment. You do see how the home ownership rate does not track the total number of people who own a home right? Im worried that a teacher cant interpret the sources they are providing correctly. If we interpret your source the way that you are it implies that there are more homeowners in the US than there are homes. You read the chart wrong.
What it actually says is that out of all the homes in the US polled by the census X percent of them were occupied by the home owner. That is not the same thing as X percent of all people in the country own a home. The homeownership rate can increase while the per capita rate of home ownership decreases.
DD_equals_doodoo t1_j9wq679 wrote
... what do you think "rate" means...
Centrismo t1_j9wqidh wrote
Please stop assuming Im an idiot, I know what rate means. The “home ownership rate”, As Defined By Your Source, measures the percent of homes that are owned by one of the occupants. It does not measure the percent of the population that owns a home.
Do I need to screen cap the part of your source’s notes that specifies that for you or do you genuinely not understand why those two measures are different?
DD_equals_doodoo t1_j9xs2pw wrote
You've spent over a dozen comments arguing a point I was right about and a second point you misinterpreted. I think we can stop here.
Centrismo t1_j9xu5rp wrote
You’re not qualified to be a teacher if that’s truly what you’re taking away from this exchange. Im genuinely floored you can’t understand me, I’ve made it so clear.
DD_equals_doodoo t1_j9xuk2g wrote
I have a Ph.D. and publish. According to accreditation standards, I'm pretty sure I'm good to go in terms of qualification.
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