Submitted by giteam t3_110by4y in dataisbeautiful
ftalbert t1_j8ap32f wrote
Reply to comment by SLYTAPEX in [OC] Largest celebrity divorce settlements by giteam
What if the majority of wealth was created during the marriage?
MeanGreanHare t1_j8bd61n wrote
If both parties are equally involved in earning that wealth, they can both be entitled to half.
If one earned all the money, and the other earned nothing, the latter should not be entitled to anywhere near half.
temujin94 t1_j8bppuw wrote
So if both people in the relationship have the exact same job with the same pay. They come to a mutual decision that one of them will be the full time child carer for their children as it suits both parents over any other alternative.
Now the parent still working can further progress into their career earning progressively more money. They divorce 20 years after that decision and it is your opinion that because they didn't earn that money they are entitled to way less than their partner?
As somebody that works in law that is not equitable at all to me. You've made a joint decision to impact someone's career and future earnings for everyone's benefit and now they are being punished for it unduly.
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