rfkile t1_j7bwdgk wrote
Reply to comment by boldjarl in Economic freedom (Index of Economic Freedom) vs Income inequality (Gini coefficient) in 153 countries [OC] by Independent-Ad-514
Unless a relationship is absolutely perfect and there's no noise whatsoever, you'll have an r^(2) less than 1. A value of r^(2) less than 1 doesn't mean "no trend." It just means "there's some fraction of the dependent variable that isn't controlled by the independent variable."
Also worth mentioning that the value OP provided is r (probably the Pearson Correlation Coefficient) rather than r^(2) Coefficient of Determination. While certainly, you can look at the graph and see plainly that the r^(2) is less than 1, it's important to distinguish between r and r^(2)
boldjarl t1_j7byzef wrote
I meant 0.1. And I squared the r to get r squared.
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