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rfkile t1_j7bwdgk wrote

Unless a relationship is absolutely perfect and there's no noise whatsoever, you'll have an r^(2) less than 1. A value of r^(2) less than 1 doesn't mean "no trend." It just means "there's some fraction of the dependent variable that isn't controlled by the independent variable."

Also worth mentioning that the value OP provided is r (probably the Pearson Correlation Coefficient) rather than r^(2) Coefficient of Determination. While certainly, you can look at the graph and see plainly that the r^(2) is less than 1, it's important to distinguish between r and r^(2)

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boldjarl t1_j7byzef wrote

I meant 0.1. And I squared the r to get r squared.

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