Submitted by Fbg2525 t3_10ek9vz in askscience
As the title mentions, based on casual observation, it seems to me that the effective dose of most medicine active ingredients is somewhere between 5 mg and 200 mg. There are of course exceptions like fentanyl which is incredibly potent at the scale of micrograms, and gabapentin, which is often dosed at over 1000 mg, but it seems like most medications are within a narrower range I mention above. This is surprising given vastly different molecular structures of the different medications.
My first question is, is my observation empirically accurate? Or, am I just noticing a non-representative subset of medications?
My second question is, if this is true, why? I know the range i mentioned is pretty large, but it seems narrow when considering total physically possible ranges? Why don’t we see more medications with effective dosages at the microgram scale?
One possibility that occurred to me- is this just a matter of practicality? Consuming multiple grams of medication, although possible, is inconvenient. Similarly, maybe its more expensive to manufacture super potent compounds because of the precision it requires. Are companies just choosing to develop products that work in a more convenient dosing range?
Another possibility that occurred to me- is there some law of chemistry or factor in our biology that makes this the ideal dosage range for many different compounds? E.g., the size of molecules limits potency, the body has some process that clears de minimis amounts of a compound, the average human weight somehow necessitates medications usually be in this range, etc.?
This question has been driving me crazy, so thanks to anyone who can provide some insight.
[deleted] t1_j4tromu wrote
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