Submitted by Erratic_Noman t3_10ejkgo in askscience
reeeeeeeeeee78 t1_j4va0lu wrote
Reply to comment by Erratic_Noman in Biologically speaking, what makes men typically stronger than women? by Erratic_Noman
They have massively higher concentrations of androgen receptors independent of testosterone exposure. Amongst elite athletes men tend to have a higher 1rm off of say, an 8 rep max.
IE a man and a woman of equal muscle mass and leverages can both squat 315x8. The man will have a 1rm fairly higher then the female even though rep max was the same.
Men are better at maximal efforts, likely from muscle fiber composition favoring 1rm and the androgen receptors.
nicuramar t1_j4x9w62 wrote
> men tend to have a higher 1rm off of say, an 8 rep max.
What do these letters mean? Rm? Rep?
reeeeeeeeeee78 t1_j4xqr8q wrote
1 repetition maximum. A rep being one of a movement type.
Like benching 225 12 times would be 12 reps at 225, for a set of 12.
1 rm or rep max would be the most weight you can lift a single time.
Men who have the same 12 repetition maximum (the most weight they can lift 12 times in a row) as women, will have a higher 1 rep maximum then women. Women seem to have better endurance relative to their maximal strength, while men have better power relative to their lifting endurance.
Female Olympic athletes are just much better at handling total training volume relative to 1rm then men are.
IE attempting 5 reps at 95 percent of 1rm could be possible for women. For men it's likely they would fail after 2 reps and begin to risk serious injury.
The tldr is that women are more resistant to fatigue then men while lifting heavy, but men are capable of producing more power with equal muscle mass. Part of it is cns, part hormones. Women who take steroids still can't equal 1rm of steroid free men when muscle mass is the same.
[deleted] t1_j4z4s1b wrote
[deleted]
[deleted] t1_j4xexq9 wrote
[removed]
Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments