Submitted by Speterius t3_10ea1ng in askscience
d0meson t1_j4qb8l2 wrote
Reply to comment by taphead739 in Why does the existence of magnetic monopoles imply quantized electric charges? by Speterius
As an aside, Dirac's statement is so interesting because 1) the angular momentum carried by such a field configuration is independent of the distance between the electric and magnetic charge, and 2) it only requires one point magnetic charge to work.
So as long as there is at least one magnetic monopole somewhere in the universe, his argument works.* What if there's genuinely only one? It's an interesting scenario to think about in terms of the limits of the scientific method; for example, if that one monopole passed through an experiment and left our Solar System, never to return, that experiment would essentially be non-repeatable and therefore non-verifiable.
*in a classical universe; not sure whether GR or QFT impact this statement.
Shufflepants t1_j4sn6to wrote
>*in a classical universe; not sure whether GR or QFT impact this statement.
Yeah, I would assume that the permeating presence of the electromagnetic field as represented in QFT would alleviate the need for there to be a magnetic monopole.
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