Submitted by BlackWardz t3_10oe29j in askscience
The question is a bit hectic but I wasn't sure how to word it properly.
Basically if we consider bacteria and viruses causing illness in humans, are they present for so long only because there was always someone to "pass it on"?
In other words, if we were lucky enough to get to a point where nobody would be infected by smallpox, would that mean the end of smallpox? I know there are of course things like the bacteria being able to survive without a host for some time on contaminated surfaces, etc., but hosts remain their main way of survival, right?
The thought that brought me to this question was whether the wide range of diseases we know today exists because we were never lucky enough for nobody to be infected by that specific bacteria for example.
iayork t1_j6i799b wrote
Some diseases could be eradicated if they were eliminated from every person. But many diseases have reservoirs in the environment (tetanus, Legionella, histoplasmosis) or in animals (West Nile, monkeypox, Ebola, MERS). Other diseases arise more or less spontaneously due to e.g. mutation (feline infectious peritonitis -- I can't offhand think of a human example) or recombination with related animal viruses (SARS, SARS-CoV-2). Since these diseases don't depend on remaining in the affected population, they wouldn't be eliminated by clearing them from that population.
>if we were lucky enough to get to a point where nobody would be infected by smallpox, would that mean the end of smallpox
That's exactly what happened, but there was nothing "lucky" about it - it was the result of a decades-long enormous vaccination and eradication effort by every country on Earth,