Submitted by I_am_Mind_Wanderer t3_yk064n in askscience
Let's say that someone has a perfectly healthy hearing. Guidelines will say that it's safe for him to listen to music with headphones up to a specified volume.
Now let's say this person incurred hearing loss. Let's say that we use some software to raise the volume of the music they're listening on a frequency-specific and hear-specific manner, so that their perceived loudness of the music is the same as before hearing loss occured. This person turns up their music to safe volume, and then the software raises volume.
Would this person hearing be as safe from noise-induced hearing loss as if he had no volume-raising software and no hearing damage? Or would they risk just as much damage as someone with no hearing loss whatsoever?
[deleted] t1_iurn5xr wrote
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