Submitted by I_am_Mind_Wanderer t3_yk064n in askscience
Let's say that someone has a perfectly healthy hearing. Guidelines will say that it's safe for him to listen to music with headphones up to a specified volume.
Now let's say this person incurred hearing loss. Let's say that we use some software to raise the volume of the music they're listening on a frequency-specific and hear-specific manner, so that their perceived loudness of the music is the same as before hearing loss occured. This person turns up their music to safe volume, and then the software raises volume.
Would this person hearing be as safe from noise-induced hearing loss as if he had no volume-raising software and no hearing damage? Or would they risk just as much damage as someone with no hearing loss whatsoever?
[deleted] t1_iuro53q wrote
Just so I have this straight, I believe you're asking if a damaging, loud noise will still be damaging if it has already caused the damage on the hearing hair cells.
Two things factor into permanent hearing loss from noise: volume and time sustained. As long as there are hair cells left to damage (partial hearing loss), using the same original volume and amount of time will also damage additional cells. So raising the volume above a safe level will continue to damage your hearing whether you can hear it well or not.
The CDC recommends that people with hearing loss keep the volume down to a safe level even with hearing loss and recommends techniques like reading lips for help if it's a person speaking. This will help prevent it from getting worse. https://www.cdc.gov/nceh/hearing_loss/what_if_i_already_have_hearing_loss.html